Hello,
I read the following discussion on another forum—what do you think?
“
Could it be that the dividend was paid out of the capital itself, causing the cost basis to be adjusted downward?
”
Is this something worth looking into?
Hello,
I read the following discussion on another forum—what do you think?
“
Could it be that the dividend was paid out of the capital itself, causing the cost basis to be adjusted downward?
”
Is this something worth looking into?



