Can someone explain to me why $10AJ (-2,85%) with the same positions/index as $HPRO (-2,91%) with the same TER has outperformed by around 25% in the last 5 years?
Is it due to the fund currency or the fund domicile?
Can someone explain to me why $10AJ (-2,85%) with the same positions/index as $HPRO (-2,91%) with the same TER has outperformed by around 25% in the last 5 years?
Is it due to the fund currency or the fund domicile?