1Sem.·

Income statement TradeRepublic

Hello everyone,

I have a problem with TradeRepublic that I don't quite understand and I hope you can help me.

Last week I sold the $ACWI with a profit of about 604€ and switched to the $SPYI (+1,41 %) and switched to the GetQuin shows me this profit correctly, but TradeRepublic does not, although TR shows both the (weighted) buy-in and the sales price correctly, see the attached pictures. However, how they can show a loss with a €0.97 higher sales price compared to the purchase price is beyond me.

I received the following reply to my query to support:

"Sales in a position that has been built up through multiple purchases are treated on a first-in-first-out basis. This means that the basis for calculating your sale is the entry price of the shares purchased first."

That can't really be the case, can it?

The profit that I have actually made is not taxed.

6 Commentaires

Sauerland_Investor@Sauerland_Investor

1Sem.

****UPDATE****
The loss is due to the partial exemption and the advance lump sum to be deducted from the profit. TR support has just informed me of this after a lengthy back and forth.

•

Play R.@Playrio

1Sem.

@Sauerland_Investor Does this mean that you will receive a "tax refund" for the "advance lump sum" and this will then be shown separately?

••

Sauerland_Investor@Sauerland_Investor

1Sem.

@Playrio the deducted advance lump sum has been offset against the existing tax-free allowance. As a result, this has increased again for this year.
So the loss was initially in the loss calculation pot, was then offset against the advance lump sum and then against the exemption order, which is now almost complete again.

•

Play R.@Playrio

1Sem.

@Sauerland_Investor Danke👍🏻

•

Play R.@Playrio

1Sem.

From my point of view, TR's statement would be simply wrong (perhaps unfortunate wording?). It would mean, for example, that I buy 5 shares for 5 euros and then another 5 shares for 10 euros. When selling, 10 shares are then sold for 5 euros even though the price is 10 euros. This is of course nonsense. It would then be 10 shares at 10 euros. In my view, a partial sale in this scenario of 5 shares at a price of 10 euros would result in a profit of 25 euros, for example (because FIFO). A complete sale would also result in a profit of 25 euros.

Have you already made partial sales before?

••

Sauerland_Investor@Sauerland_Investor

1Sem.

@Playrio thanks for your comment, I agree. No, I haven't made any partial sales before. Just had a savings plan since 2022 (+ a little starting capital).

••