Can someone explain to me why $10AJ (-1,51 %) with the same positions/index as $HPRO (-0,73 %) with the same TER has outperformed by around 25% in the last 5 years?
Is it due to the fund currency or the fund domicile?
Can someone explain to me why $10AJ (-1,51 %) with the same positions/index as $HPRO (-0,73 %) with the same TER has outperformed by around 25% in the last 5 years?
Is it due to the fund currency or the fund domicile?