Can someone explain to me why $10AJ (+0,96 %) with the same positions/index as $HPRO (+1,05 %) with the same TER has outperformed by around 25% in the last 5 years?
Is it due to the fund currency or the fund domicile?
Can someone explain to me why $10AJ (+0,96 %) with the same positions/index as $HPRO (+1,05 %) with the same TER has outperformed by around 25% in the last 5 years?
Is it due to the fund currency or the fund domicile?